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A De-Broglie's Fictitious wave

  1. Nov 7, 2016 #1
    I read through DeBroglie's original paper - and also a modern explanation on the same (attached).
    The first contradiction that DeBroglie arrives at is simple enough - he considers the 'wave-particle' as observed from a stationary frame - and from a moving frame. The 'inner frequency' of the wave-particle is
    v' = v SQRT (1-Beta^2) Equation (1)
    Now, he looks at the Energy transformation - and arrives at - v' = v / [SQRT (1-Beta^2)]. equation (2)

    (1) and (2) are different - that is plain to see. To explain this difference, de-Broglie assumes ANOTHER fictitious wave associated with the particle. This is the part I am having trouble with - can anyone shed light on this second wave - and how it resolves the dilemma?

    Page 2 in the attached article discusses this fully.
     

    Attached Files:

  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 13, 2016 #2
    Thanks for the thread! This is an automated courtesy bump. Sorry you aren't generating responses at the moment. Do you have any further information, come to any new conclusions or is it possible to reword the post? The more details the better.
     
  4. Nov 14, 2016 #3

    bhobba

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    What can one say - De Broglie is a crock.

    Forget about it - study QM from a book like Ballentine.

    Thanks
    Bill
     
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