this isn't quite going to make sense at first (perhaps):
None. But if you meant 'astronomical' phenomena, please take a look at the thread I'm going to start in General Astronomy.
A:
I don't care.
I don't give a damn.
No it does not.
using your definitions, what you have written is internally consistent. likewise, by a mathematican's definition of truth, it is false that aleph0 = aleph1. this is also false by the scientific definition of truth because nothing in reality so far is the same as something greater than itself. (perhaps when all fields decide that something is false, that provides evidence that it is absolutely false...) you said that intangible claims are inherintly indeterminate. i still say that "aleph0 = aleph1" is a determinate intangible claim and i've even shown this to be the case using the scientific definition of truth. i would agree that SOME intangible claims are indeterminate, but not all. this leads one to question whether or not the "intangible" God existence claim is as indeterminate as you think it is, for no longer are all intangible claims indeterminate.
i don't think the scientific definition of truth is something it is not. i'm saying that is not the definition of truth. i think it does matter which is the better language. and the scientific definition of truth is clearly inferior; i indicated this by my african american claim which would be "true" by the scientific definition of truth.
in a strawman fallacy, the argument in question is changed to a weaker version of that argument; then the weaker version is attacked. when did i do this? in other words, when did i change your argument into a weaker version of that argument?
Hence, you are talking the platonic idea of maths. In which case, yes, maths in science. It can be tested that 1+1 =2, and it can be tested by observation that the law of maths that alephfoo refers to is correct.
And I am saying that is, in the posts I have written. You have instead surplanted your definition of truth into what I have written, I created absurd results. Of course you will.
Let us take an example.
Now understand the context of that. The context is in point number one - we can never know everything. By Godel's theorem, nothing we can know can possibly be complete, and things that we must definitely think are true have often turned out not to be. By inference, I am saying that it is impossible to know anything as absolutely true, because the human mind is absolutely flawed. All we will end up would be an illusion of absolute truth, and a stagnating wall to progress. The process of knowledge relies on us asking questions, and someone taking anything as absolutely true is a fool.
What I then realised was that (presumeably) you were considering my conception of rationality at all. Rather, your example (irrational numbers) showed that you were in fact talking about things like common sense, which I consider as the delusion of absolute truth. What I considered as rational was to see things - old things, new things, old ideas, new ideas with skepticism, and continuously test them. That is often the stimulus for genius, and what differentiates genius from plain madness.
is "aleph0 = aleph1" a tangible or intangible claim?
did you mean "i created absurd results" or "you created absurd results"? by your definition of truth, the claim "all people who will or ever have attacked me are african americans" is true because it is an observation consistent with reality so far. i'm not surplanting my definition of truth here; this is your definition. and yes, the result is absurd. do you see? do you get it? do you understand what i'm saying?
this is when i wasn't aware of what you meant by intangible. i was using a common sense definition of intangible at the time, not unlike how the scientific definition of truth isn't common sense. there's nothing wrong with redefining truth or contradicting common sense as long as the theory is internally consistent.
i agree that in your definitions of intangible and determinable, it is indeterminate whether a by definition undetectible substance exists. the thing is that i'm not saying God's presence is undetectable (some people think it is). the human consciousness is able to detect it while, as far as i know, no instrument or device can. the claim that God left some sort of signature to show that God did create the universe is tangible and, furthermore, the signature is "readable" via the human consciousness and perhaps by other methods. get it? do you see? do you understand what i'm saying?
Godel's theorem refers to mathematics and mathematical axioms, which are not the same as what we know. incompleteness is that there are theorems which cannot be proven with axioms and deduction to be either "true" or "false" (in the mathematical sense). how does that suggest that it is impossible to know something that is "true?" to me, it just suggests that it is impossible to prove it. you said "someone taking anything as absolutely true is a fool." an interesting conclusion can be drawn from this. when God knows something is true, it knows that it is absolutely true (being omniscient). therefore, God is a fool. interesting... if foolness is some kind of ordered relation, that suggests that eveyone is a fool; so singling anyone out and calling them a fool is pointless for everyone is a fool by that rationale.
a set of ideas you don't seem to be skeptical about are your definitions of truth, falsifibility, tangibility, provability, etc. an interesting self-contradiction. or perhaps you are skeptical about those ideas but just aren't public about the skepticism. if you're not skeptical about your own notions of truth (etc), then, by your definition, you are irrational. you sound pretty self-righteous about your notions. do you see?
Actually, that isn't absurd. You might for instance never get attacked, which would validate this perfectly. And it gives predictions. All well and good.
This was also before you disputed that you didn't understand what I am saying, and that you disagreed with my definitions.
Exactly. The moment we establish the significance of consciousness as an instrument rather than a processing centre, and rule out the huge variety of rival consciousness "measurements" that say the complete opposite, and look at the evidence from the full overview.
No, godel's theorem refer's to all formal systems of logic, including itself.
That doesn't say that at all. It says it is impossible for you to know something that is true to me, and everyone else, in an absolute fashion.
How can God know that he knows everything? That's part of the illogic of omnisicience. Also one of the reasons that most theologies that involve omniscience choose to say that God decides not to use it. (Other arguments involve preservation of free will etc etc.)
No, everyone who believes that they know everything is a fool.
Even omniscience cannot transcend logic. If it could, there is no way we can talk about it reasonably.
And this proves your sanity, how?
That is correct. I am irrational.
) must be irrational. Because they only serve as labels for the chaos within. A think of something, and I throw a name at it - skepticism, truth, tangibility. However I try to formalise it, there is no way I can eliminate the inductive step, the sudden jump. I did not intend my thought processes to be "true", and I do not believe that there is a true instance of "correct", only conveniences that are agreed on - or at least understood, and that may be more useful in certain contexts.