Is it possible to define sets from just the peano axioms?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Usually when people use the peano axioms as the basis of their math they just assume the existence of sets but without axioms regarding sets we technically shouldn't just say they exist.

Oh, also there are two versions of the induction axiom. Obviously you can't use the one that mentions sets.

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# Define sets from peano axioms

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