- #1
JohnGaltis
- 18
- 0
According to DeMorgan’s theorem (break the bar and change the sign), the complement of ܽa⋅b+c⋅d is a'+b'⋅c'+d' Yet both functions are 1 for ܾܽܿ abcd 1110. How can both a function and its complement be 1 for the same input combination? What’s wrong here?I honestly have no idea. I mean, shouldn't all complements be the inverse? This is the first question that stated otherwise and it really confuses me.