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I was studying Ryder, Chapter 2[Quantum Field Theory]....he derives the Dirac eq using Lorentz transformations..I found the approach fascinating..but there is one part I do not really understand....

Just a few lines before he writes down the Dirac equation, he identifies [tex]\varphi_{R}(0)[/tex] with [tex]\varphi_{L}(0)[/tex] using the argument that there is no handedness when the particle at rest..

Although I do know this, I am not able to see how this follows from the arguments presented till then....Can someone please clarify this point?

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# Derivation of Dirac equation using Lorentz transform

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