Derivation of tanx.

1. Oct 28, 2004

Dr-NiKoN

$f(x) = \tan(x) = \frac{\sin(x)}{\cos(x)}$
Using: $(\Delta x = h)$

$f'(x) = \frac{f(x + h) - f(x)}{h}$

$f'(x) = \frac{\frac{\sin(x + h)}{\cos(x + h)} - \frac{sin(x)}{\cos(x)}}{h}$

Where do I go from here?

Last edited: Oct 28, 2004
2. Oct 28, 2004

Dr-NiKoN

$\sin(x + h) = -\sin(x)$
$\cos(x + h) = -cos(x)$

$f'(x) = \frac{\frac{-\sin(x)}{-\cos(x)} - \frac{\sin(x)}{\cos(x)}}{h}$

Is this the correct step?
hmpf, probably not..

Last edited: Oct 28, 2004
3. Oct 28, 2004

Dr-NiKoN

Maybe:

$sin(u + v) = \sin(u)\cos(v) + \cos(u)\sin(v)$

Thus:

$f'(x) = \frac{\frac{\sin(x)\cos(h) + \cos(x)\sin(h)}{\cos(x)\cos(h) - \sin(x)\sin(h)} - \frac{sin(x)}{\cos(x)}}{h}$

?

4. Oct 28, 2004

Galileo

First try finding the derivative of sin(x) and cos(x) first. (You probably know them already).
Then use the quotient rule.
$$\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)'=\frac{gf'-fg'}{g^2}$$

5. Oct 28, 2004

Dr-NiKoN

Yes, I have no problems doing it that way.
But, how about using the general formula for derivatives:

$f'(x) = \frac{f(x + h) - f(x)}{h}$

Possible?

6. Oct 28, 2004

TenaliRaman

definitely,

Needs a bit of trigonometry result .....
tan(A-B) = [tan(A) - tan(B)]/[1+tan(A)tan(B)]
therefore,
tan(A) - tan(B) = tan(A-B)*(1+tan(A)tan(B))

tan(x+h)-tan(x) = tan(h)*(1+tan(x+h)tan(x))
Can u finish off now?

-- AI

7. Oct 28, 2004

Dr-NiKoN

Hm..
$f'(x) = \frac{\tan(h) * (1 + \tan(x+h)\tan(x))}{h}$

I'm not sure how I would proceed from here?

8. Oct 28, 2004

TenaliRaman

i am sure u know,
$$f'(x) = \lim_{h->0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$$

so what is lim_{h->0} tan(h)/h ??

-- AI

9. Oct 28, 2004

Dr-NiKoN

$\frac{tan(x)}{x} = \frac{\frac{\sin(x)}{\cos(x)}}{x} = \frac{\sin(x)}{x}\frac{1}{cos(x)} = 1$

I'm not seeing the bigger picture though :)

Hm.
$f'(x) = \frac{\tan(h)}{h} \frac{1 + \tan(x+h)\tan(x)}{1}$

Is this what you mean?

Last edited: Oct 28, 2004
10. Oct 28, 2004

devious_

$$f'(x)=\lim_{h\,\rightarrow\,0}1+\tan(x+h)\tan(x)$$

What is $$\lim_{h\,\rightarrow\,0}\tan(x+h)$$?

11. Oct 28, 2004

NateTG

Nitpicking: Well, you also have to insure that $$\tan(x)$$ is defined. If $$x=\frac{\pi}{2}$$ the limit does not exist or is asymptotic.

12. Oct 28, 2004

Nylex

Nitpicking: you mean ensure :).

13. Oct 29, 2004

Dr-NiKoN

Hm, I'm not seeing how to get to 1/cos^2x, but it doesn't matter, I'll just use f'(x)/g'(x).

$f(x) = \tan(x) \rightarrow (\frac{\sin(x)}{\cos(x)})' = \frac{(\sin(x))'\cos(x) - \sin(x)(\cos(x))'}{(\cos(x))^{2}} = \frac{\cos^{2}(x) + \sin^{2}(x)}{\cos^{2}(x)}$

Here is another question though:
Find the derivative of arctan(x), using arctan(tan(x)) = x.
This also has me stumped.

$g'(x) = \arctan(x)$

I know that:
$f'(x) = f'[g(x)] * g'(x)$

But, I don't see what I can do with arctan(x), except for the obvious:

$\arctan(\arctan(\tan(x)))$
which doesn't help at all.

How would I proceed? I'm suppoed to use the derivative of a "functionsfunction", not sure what it's called in english.

Last edited: Oct 29, 2004
14. Oct 29, 2004

hedlund

Say y = arctan(x) then tan(y) = tan(atan(x)). But tan(atan(x))=x for all x. So we have tan(y) = x deriving with respect to x on left side and right side we get:
y' * (tan(y)^2 + 1) = 1 => y' = 1/(tan(y)^2+1). But what is tan(y)? Well tan(y)=x so the derivate of arctan(x) is 1/(x^2+1).

15. Oct 29, 2004

MiGUi

Mmm I know to do it but with complex function, since

$$\arctan{z} = {1 \over 2} i ( \ln(1 -iz) - \ln(1 + iz))$$

You easily obtain that

$${d \over dz} \arctan{z} = {1 \over 1 + z^2}$$

I don't know how to do in other way, without knowing the expression of arctan in more elemmental functions...

16. Oct 29, 2004

Dr-NiKoN

Hm.
$y = \arctan(x)$
$\tan(y) = x$
$\arctan(\tan(x)) = x$
This I understand.
But, how do you get from:
$y = \arctan(x)$
to
$tan(y) = \tan(\arctan(x))$

Why isn't it, or wouldn't it be:
$tan(y) = \arctan(\tan(x))$
?

17. Oct 29, 2004

NateTG

Take the tangent of both sides of the equation.

18. Oct 29, 2004

Dr-NiKoN

Ah, of course :)
so
$\tan(y) = \tan(\arctan(x)) = x$
And:
$f'[g(x)] * g'(x)$

$f(x) = \tan(y)$ and $g(x) = y$

$(tan(y))' * y' = x'$

$\frac{1}{\cos^2(x)} * 1 = 1$

I'm not understanding this :(
How do you get $\frac{1}{\cos^2(x) + 1}$
?

Last edited: Oct 29, 2004
19. Oct 29, 2004

MiGUi

> Take the tangent of both sides of the equation.

I don't know if that is too correct since the tangent is defined between [0, pi/2) so what if x = n*pi/2?

20. Oct 29, 2004

NateTG

$$\tan (\arctan (x))=x$$
$$\frac{d}{dx} \tan (\arctan (x)) = \frac{d}{dx} x$$
$$\arctan'(x) \times \sec^2(\arctan(x))=1$$
$$\arctan'(x) = \cos^2(\arctan(x))$$
Now
$$\cos(\arctan(x))=\frac{\pm 1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}$$
(Consider, for example, a right triangle where the adjacent side is 1, the opposite side is $$x$$ and the hypotenuse is $$\sqrt{1+x^2}$$)
So we can substitute that in:
$$\arctan'(x)=(\frac{\pm 1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}})^2=\frac{1}{1+x^2}$$
the $$\pm$$ drops out because of the square.