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Detection of magnetic monopoles

  1. Jan 17, 2005 #1
    How would neutrons interact with magnetic monopoles?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 17, 2005 #2
    They would not...

    To my knowledge, magnetic monopoles are used in QCD where they are responsible for constructing the fluxtube among two quarks. However this is a theoretical picture and it is NOT backed up by experiments. The presence of the monopoles, that is

    marlon
     
  4. Jan 17, 2005 #3

    Nereid

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    What is the experimental/observational limit on the existence of monopoles (inc composite bodies, such as a planet)?
     
  5. Jan 18, 2005 #4
    I dont understand your answer nerid. I took an exam yesterday. This question came up. I've searched the web and have found nothing. My fellow students all gave different answers. My calculations yielded that the scattering would be inversely proportional too the square of the sine of half the polar angle. The question also said we could consider the neutrons to be polarized in the direction of the incident beam. Any ideas?
     
  6. Jan 18, 2005 #5

    ahrkron

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    Here's a CDF+D0 combined report for the Tevatron:

    http://arxiv.org/pdf/hep-ex/0306045

    For different magnetic charges, it puts limits of at least 265GeV on masses, and at most 0.6 pb. I know that CDF is in the process of preparing an update on their cross section limit, but I don't know how much better than this it will be (if at all).
     
  7. Jan 18, 2005 #6

    Nereid

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    Sorry for the confusion ... what I meant by 'composite bodies' was 'other than a (sad and lonely) particle'. To use an analogy; back when there was interest in isolated quarks, macroscopic objects (such as tiny Nb spheres, blobs of ink in an ink-jet) were examined to see if any had a fractional charge. So the second part of my question is something like 'has anyone looked for monopoles in macroscopic blobs of matter? if so, what limits did those experiments/search set (e.g. fewer than 1 monopole in 10^25 atoms of Ni, or 10^32 molecules of NaCl)?
     
  8. Jan 19, 2005 #7

    vanesch

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    Are these "gluon-magnetic" monopoles - with that I mean the gluon-field equivalence of an electromagnetic monopole, or are you talking about genuine electromagnetic monopoles ?
    (in another way, are you talking about the A^n_mu fields of QCD, or about the A_mu field of QED)

    cheers,
    Patrick.
     
  9. Jan 19, 2005 #8
    Euuh, to be honest i must admit that i don't really know the difference between the two kinfs of monopoles here. Could you please elaborate?

    The monopoles which i am referring to are the dual variant of electric charges like quarks. When two quarks interact via the colour-electric field one can perform the EM-duality transformation. This means the we replace the E field by the B field and the other way around. So basically two of these monopoles (two dual quarks if you will) interact via the "colour"-magnetic field which is the dual of the colour-electric field. So i am talking about the FIRST kind of monopole that you mentioned. The monopole that arise as the dual of the geniune electric charged-particle (like the electron, so no colour-charge but electric-charge) is not used...at least not to my knowledge and certainly NOT in QCD or when describing quark-confinement...

    This is how i see the difference between the two kinds of monpoles that you brought up??? You agree or not ??

    regards
    marlon
     
  10. Jan 19, 2005 #9

    vanesch

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    This answers indeed my (naive) question, thanks !

    Patrick.
     
  11. Jan 20, 2005 #10
    One way to detect a magnetic monopole is to construct a cilindrical superconductor. Within this superconductor we have magnetic field lines and the B-field is zero at the boundaries of the conductor. Due to the Meissner effect, electrical field lines will be pushed out of the superconductor. Now suppose that we place a circular wire (it can conduct electrical current and it is superconductive in nature so this current will not diminish due to resistivity-effects inside this wire) inside the cilinder (a wire of smaller radius ofcourse so that it is totally inside the superconductor) If a magnetic monople were to pass through the circular surface of the wire, an electrical current will be induced inside the wire. Why ? Well, because the magnetic monopole changes the magnetic flux through the circular surface of the wire. This change must be eliminated because of the Meissner-effect and this "elimination" happens via the induced current inside the wire. So basically the electrical current is induced in order to keep the magnetic flux constant inside the superconductor. This electrical signal can be captured and thus we have an alarm that shows us the passage of a magnetic monopole. It is important to realize that this current will only remain when a MONOPOLE has passed through the surface of the wire. In the case of dipole or multipole there will also be induced supercurrents (you know, the above mentioned the electrical currents in the wire that is superconductive in nature) as the mutlipole passes through the surface but once they have passed the net-change will be ZERO. So there is only a current during the passage of the multipole through the surface but this current will evolve towards zero once the multipole moves away from the wire. Only in the case of a monopole, there will remain an electrical current in the wire


    regards
    marlon
     
  12. Mar 30, 2008 #11
    That sounds interesting, Is such an experiment performed?
     
  13. Mar 30, 2008 #12

    pam

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    The neutron has a magnetic moment.
    The interaction of a neutron with a magnetic monopole would be the same as that of an electric dipole with a point charge.
     
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