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I am trying to perpare for my final for linear algebra and am attempting to catch up in readings- in particular about diagonlization.
Theorem 5.1: A linear operator T on a finite-dimensional vector space V is diagonalizable if and only if there exists an ordered basis B for V consisting of eigenvectors of T. Furthermore, if T is diagonalizable, B = {[tex]v_1, v_2, ..., v_n[/tex]} is an ordered basis of eigenvectors of T, and D = [tex][T]_B[/tex], then D is a diagonal matrix and [tex]D_j_j[/tex] is the eigenvalue corresponding to [tex]v_j[/tex] for 1<= j <= n.
Question: For some reason in my textbook, they omitted the proof. I'm guessing it's fairly straightfoward, but I was wondering if someone could aid me with a proof.
Idea for a proof: If T is diagonalizable, then for some [tex]v_j[/tex], [tex]T(v_j)[/tex] = [tex]\lambda_j[/tex][tex]v_j[/tex] (by definition- from last post).
So it follows, for each eigenvalue [tex]\lambda_j[/tex] ( 1 <= j <= n, where n is the number of elements in our particular basis B ), there exists corresponding eigenvectors [tex]v_j[/tex] by definition. Since a basis for a diagonalizable matrix by definition is composed of the eigenvectors, our basis B = { lambda_1, lambda_2, ..., lambda_n } is composed of eigenvectors.
Questions:
1. Can someone tell me if my proof above is correct? I feel as if I'm assuming to much when I said "Since a basis for a diagonalizable matrix by definition is composed of the eigenvectors... "
2. Also can someone justify the remaining portion of the theorem "... Furthermore, if T is diagonalizable... is the eigenvalue corresponding to [tex]v_j[/tex] for 1 <= j <= n."
THanks again,
JL
Theorem 5.1: A linear operator T on a finite-dimensional vector space V is diagonalizable if and only if there exists an ordered basis B for V consisting of eigenvectors of T. Furthermore, if T is diagonalizable, B = {[tex]v_1, v_2, ..., v_n[/tex]} is an ordered basis of eigenvectors of T, and D = [tex][T]_B[/tex], then D is a diagonal matrix and [tex]D_j_j[/tex] is the eigenvalue corresponding to [tex]v_j[/tex] for 1<= j <= n.
Question: For some reason in my textbook, they omitted the proof. I'm guessing it's fairly straightfoward, but I was wondering if someone could aid me with a proof.
Idea for a proof: If T is diagonalizable, then for some [tex]v_j[/tex], [tex]T(v_j)[/tex] = [tex]\lambda_j[/tex][tex]v_j[/tex] (by definition- from last post).
So it follows, for each eigenvalue [tex]\lambda_j[/tex] ( 1 <= j <= n, where n is the number of elements in our particular basis B ), there exists corresponding eigenvectors [tex]v_j[/tex] by definition. Since a basis for a diagonalizable matrix by definition is composed of the eigenvectors, our basis B = { lambda_1, lambda_2, ..., lambda_n } is composed of eigenvectors.
Questions:
1. Can someone tell me if my proof above is correct? I feel as if I'm assuming to much when I said "Since a basis for a diagonalizable matrix by definition is composed of the eigenvectors... "
2. Also can someone justify the remaining portion of the theorem "... Furthermore, if T is diagonalizable... is the eigenvalue corresponding to [tex]v_j[/tex] for 1 <= j <= n."
THanks again,
JL
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