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A question: is it possible (maybe handling differentials, I don't know) to have in the same formula these two expressions: [tex] \frac{dp}{dq}[/tex] and
[tex] \frac{dq}{dp}[/tex]?
I think it is illogical. It would imply that at same time p is a function of q and q is a function of p. That seems nonsense to me. Am I allright?
Thanks for any answer.
[tex] \frac{dq}{dp}[/tex]?
I think it is illogical. It would imply that at same time p is a function of q and q is a function of p. That seems nonsense to me. Am I allright?
Thanks for any answer.