- #1

Castilla

- 241

- 0

[tex] \frac{dq}{dp}[/tex]?

I think it is illogical. It would imply that at same time p is a function of q and q is a function of p. That seems nonsense to me. Am I allright?

Thanks for any answer.

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- Thread starter Castilla
- Start date

- #1

Castilla

- 241

- 0

[tex] \frac{dq}{dp}[/tex]?

I think it is illogical. It would imply that at same time p is a function of q and q is a function of p. That seems nonsense to me. Am I allright?

Thanks for any answer.

- #2

Hurkyl

Staff Emeritus

Science Advisor

Gold Member

- 14,967

- 19

There are several routes to happiness, but they all will give the same answer in the end (which is the reason such notation continues to be popular -- brevity is surprisingly important in mathematical notation).

One route to happiness is to have

- #3

Castilla

- 241

- 0

derivatives, but tomorrow I will get it and I will post it here with all its context. Then I will ask you, Hurkyl, if said formula is aceptable on grounds of the explanation that you kindly have posted. (Excuse my english).

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