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I read this property of dimensional regularization, but i do not understand why it is so.

$$\int d^dp =0$$.

Actually looking for an answer i also saw that a general property of dim. reg. is

$$\int d^dp \, (p^2)^\alpha=0$$

for any value of ##\alpha##, so also for ##\alpha=0##. Do you have an explanation for this?

Thanks in advance.

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# A Dimensional regularization

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