Dirac Delta function question

  • Thread starter yungman
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  • #1
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I cannot get the answer as from the solution manuel.

2vl5jd0.jpg


Please tell me what am I assuming wrong.
Thanks
 

Answers and Replies

  • #2
Dick
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Just showing that the value of a function is '-infinity' at a point and zero otherwise doesn't tell you it's a delta function. Apply the divergence theorem to grad(1/r) on a sphere around the origin to figure out how much 'charge' is there.
 
  • #3
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Just showing that the value of a function is '-infinity' at a point and zero otherwise doesn't tell you it's a delta function. Apply the divergence theorem to grad(1/r) on a sphere around the origin to figure out how much 'charge' is there.

I understand that and I showed in my own answer. What I don't get is where the 4[tex]\pi[/tex] come from!!
Thanks
 
  • #4
Dick
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No, all your answer said was the value at zero is '-infinity' (I'm putting that in quotes because I'm not even sure it makes sense). I said that DOESN'T mean it's a delta function. The 4*pi comes from checking the flux through a sphere around the origin. It comes from the 4*pi in the formula for the area of a sphere.
 

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