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- Thread starter athrun200
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hunt_mat

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I think you can say [itex]f(x)\delta (x-2)=f(2)\delta (x)[/itex]

- #3

athrun200

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I think you can say [itex]f(x)\delta (x-2)=f(2)\delta (x)[/itex]

Then if x=2, left hand side will become infinity and the right hand side 0.

Is it Ok?

- #4

athrun200

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So what's wrong with my post in #1?

- #5

Dick

Science Advisor

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So what's wrong with my post in #1?

The integral of [itex]f(x) \delta(x)[/itex] over x is f(0). The integral of [itex]f(2) \delta(x)[/itex] over x is f(2). So no, they aren't the same.

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