Dirac delta function

  • #1
Can someone help me understand the transition between these two steps?
[tex]
<x> = \iint \Phi^* (p',t) \delta (p - p') \left( - \frac{\hbar}{i} \frac{\partial}{\partial p} \Phi (p,t) \right) dp' dp
[/tex]
=
[tex]
<x> = \int \Phi^* (p,t) \left( - \frac{\hbar}{i} \frac{\partial}{\partial p} \Phi (p,t) \right) dp
[/tex]

Assume the integrals go from -infinity to +infinity, and assume the delta function is the Dirac delta function.
 
Last edited:

Answers and Replies

  • #2
CarlB
Science Advisor
Homework Helper
1,214
12
Dear cyberdeathreaper,

It is a general property of delta functions that:

[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(p') \delta(p-p') dp' = f(p)[/tex]

This formula is used in what you have written.

Carl
 
Last edited:
  • #3
Thanks, I knew it was related to that. I just wasn't sure if it applied for functions of more than one variable or not.
 

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