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Why is it true that
< x | f > = f ( x )
?
shouldn't it be the result of the integral from minus infinity to infinty on xf(x)?
but then it can't even be a function of x...
< x | f > = f ( x )
?
shouldn't it be the result of the integral from minus infinity to infinty on xf(x)?
but then it can't even be a function of x...