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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hi!

I'm having some difficulties understanding WHY sign function's derivative actually is dirac's delta function? Or more specifically why the derivative equals one at zero and NOT infinite, as the sign function's "actual" derivative at zero equals infinite? Atleast it would make sense.

Thanks for your answers =)

I'm having some difficulties understanding WHY sign function's derivative actually is dirac's delta function? Or more specifically why the derivative equals one at zero and NOT infinite, as the sign function's "actual" derivative at zero equals infinite? Atleast it would make sense.

Thanks for your answers =)