- #1
Reshma
- 749
- 6
This seems to be a simple question. But I'm rather dubious at a particular step.
The question is: Prove
[tex]\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}[/tex] is directly proportional to [tex]\frac{1}{x}[/tex]
This how I went about it:
[tex]\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}=\frac{y-x}{xy}[/tex]
[tex]\frac{y-x}{xy}=[\frac{y-x}{y}]\frac{1}{x}[/tex]
Can we say the quantity on the right hand side is proportional to [tex]\frac{1}{x}[/tex]?
The question is: Prove
[tex]\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}[/tex] is directly proportional to [tex]\frac{1}{x}[/tex]
This how I went about it:
[tex]\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}=\frac{y-x}{xy}[/tex]
[tex]\frac{y-x}{xy}=[\frac{y-x}{y}]\frac{1}{x}[/tex]
Can we say the quantity on the right hand side is proportional to [tex]\frac{1}{x}[/tex]?