- #1
techmologist
- 304
- 12
Is this a theorem, that for a vector field B satisfying
div B = 0 everywhere
then there is a vector field A such that B = curl A? If so, is it hard to prove? Of course, the converse is obviously true.
div B = 0 everywhere
then there is a vector field A such that B = curl A? If so, is it hard to prove? Of course, the converse is obviously true.