- #1
roldy
- 237
- 2
I've tried to make sense of this conjecture but I can't wrap my head around it.
We've been learning about the divergence theorem and the Neumann problem.
I came across this question.
Use the divergence theorem and the partial differential equation to show that
[tex]\underbrace{\int\int\int}_{D}f(x,y,z)dxdydz=0[/tex] is a necessary condition for the Neumann problem to have a solution.
Where the Neumann problem is [tex]\Delta=f(x,y,z)[/tex] in D, [tex]\frac{\partial u}{\partial n}=0[/tex] on [tex]\partial D[/tex].
We've been learning about the divergence theorem and the Neumann problem.
I came across this question.
Use the divergence theorem and the partial differential equation to show that
[tex]\underbrace{\int\int\int}_{D}f(x,y,z)dxdydz=0[/tex] is a necessary condition for the Neumann problem to have a solution.
Where the Neumann problem is [tex]\Delta=f(x,y,z)[/tex] in D, [tex]\frac{\partial u}{\partial n}=0[/tex] on [tex]\partial D[/tex].