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Division of quarks to leptons result in quark-lepton complementary?

  1. Nov 15, 2011 #1
    Hi, I was told by a physics tutor that if you do the following you will result in pi with a complementary between the heaviest quarks and leptons in forms of spin 0 and 1. So I copied what she was saying:

    ((Top Quark mass/Tau mass)/(Charm Quark mass/Muon mass)) /

    ((Charm Quark mass/Muon mass)/(Up Quark mass/Electron mass)) = pi

    I verified that the division part was equal to 3.13 etc but not 3.14 etc, so that part is wrong.

    What did she mean by quark-lepton complementary and why should the spin be 0 and 1? I wonder if the statement she made is even valid.
  2. jcsd
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