Is dx ever truly equal to zero in integration theory?

  • Thread starter iScience
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In summary: Otherwise, dx is undefined.3.)does 2xdx=0?No. 2xdx is undefined when dx is undefined. 4.)the probability of picking 100 in the range of all natural numbers is zero?Clearly not. There is no uniform probability distribution on the natural numbers.
  • #36
micromass said:
Oh God. What did I write :cry: I corrected it.
I just emailed it to your advisor. Please don't email my gross mistakes to anyone :).
 
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  • #37
Re dx=0 , since I am not fully clear of the context, if you mean in the way it is used in integration theory, then the answer is no;
actually, for a _ fixed Riemann sum_, dx is defined as the least value ##x_k -x_{k-1} ## , where the ##x_k ## are part of a partition of an interval (integrals on unbounded interval are a separate issue), and it takes on a well-defined minimum value.
For the actual Riemann integral, you consider the _limit_ as ## dx \rightarrow 0 ## , bt dx is itself not 0, at least not so in this sense of the word.
 

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