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Does exponential take over cosine?

  1. Sep 22, 2005 #1
    If i have a response for a circuit that consists of: cos(t) + e-t + e3tand if I let t->infinity, does exponential "over-take" cos(t)?
    well, the actual question is whether the output/response remains finite as t->infinity...

    thanks, as always :smile:
    Last edited: Sep 22, 2005
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 23, 2005 #2
    maybe i'm misunderstanding you but...
    lim t-> infinity cos(t) + e^-t + e^3t = infinity
  4. Sep 23, 2005 #3


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    Staff Emeritus
    Science Advisor

    You are aware, are you not, that cos(x) is never larger than 1? It doesn't take much for any function to "overtake" (which is not the same as "take over"!) cos(x).
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