Does metric determines derivatives?

  • Thread starter eljose79
  • Start date
  • #1
eljose79
214
1
If we have a metric could we define a derivative?..in fact the derivative would be Lim D(f(x+h),f(x))
D(0.h)
 

Answers and Replies

  • #2
arivero
Gold Member
3,398
123
Covariant derivative, metric compatibility, Levi-Civita connections, etc.
 
  • #3
I am not sure what you are exactly meant by "metric" here.
If a vector space is equipped with "length" (I am using more intuitive notion.) it is called metric space. If you consider a set of nice functions over some domain they usually form a vector space. If this space has notion of norm, (and being complete) then it is called Banach space. With this norm you can define a derivative by usual calculus textbook way. ( In usual book way absolute value of real number plays the roll of norm). In metric space you can use this metric to define a norm.

Metric on Riemannian manifold is slightly different concept even though they are of course related. You can define a covariant derivative with any affine connections on Riemannian manifold. Fumdamental theorem of Riemannian geometry says, then, there is a unique covariant derivative that is compatible with metric. i.e. you can use metric to fix your affine connection to define covariant derivative.

Instanton
 

Suggested for: Does metric determines derivatives?

  • Last Post
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
428
  • Last Post
Replies
3
Views
517
  • Last Post
Replies
2
Views
925
  • Last Post
Replies
2
Views
411
Replies
1
Views
461
  • Last Post
Replies
2
Views
593
  • Last Post
Replies
4
Views
331
  • Last Post
Replies
3
Views
953
Top