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Does more angular monentum mean faster spin?
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[QUOTE="DrewD, post: 5490236, member: 216415"] As everyone else has said, the answer is no. You could only draw the conclusion you draw if the objects are the same (same mass and distribution of mass). To be more precise, the moment of inertia needs to be the same. I think you could draw this conclusion from other posts, but I just wanted to be explicit. [/QUOTE]
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Does more angular monentum mean faster spin?
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