Lenz's Law says that the induced emf from a change in B flux creates a B field that compensates for the flux change. I know that a changing E field induces a magnetic field as well, but does that magnetic field act in a way to compensate for the change in the E field? Or is that not physically possible? If it does do that, then why is there no minus sign in Maxwell's law of induction(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[itex]\oint[/itex]B[itex]\cdot[/itex]ds=[itex]\mu[/itex][itex]_{0}[/itex][itex]\epsilon[/itex][itex]_{0}[/itex][itex]\frac{d\Phi_{E}}{dt}[/itex]

like there is a minus sign in Faraday's law of induction?

[itex]\oint[/itex]E[itex]\cdot[/itex]ds=-[itex]\frac{d\Phi_{B}}{dt}[/itex]

If possible, please keep the answer at the intro E&M level. Much thanks in advance

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# Does the converse of Lenz's Law act to compensate for E flux?

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