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Does this work?

  1. May 13, 2005 #1
    just want to know if [tex]\int f(x)g(x)=\int f(x) * \int g(x)[/tex]
  2. jcsd
  3. May 13, 2005 #2


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    No, it is untrue.
  4. May 13, 2005 #3
    damn, that's what i thought, i just wanted to double check.
  5. May 13, 2005 #4


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    Because (f(x)g(x))' is not f'(x)g'(x). It is (f(x)g(x))'= f'(x)g(x)+ f(x)g'(x). The "reverse" of that is "integration by parts" which can sometimes be used to integrate a product.
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