Hey, I just want to be open about the fact that I have already tried to discuss this in the General Physics Forum, but it was dismissed as more of a philosophical issue, so hopefully this section of the Forum will be more open to the discussion. Having had a glance through some of the other threads in here, it certainly is not a new idea or notion, but it is one I am trying to get a better understanding of, or at least hear a logically coherent refutation of the issue as I perceive it. I didn't post this in any of the other threads that appeared relevant to the issue as this query appeared to be more basic, and I did not want to derail any of the threads. I must apologise in advance, as it is more than likely my own understanding that will be developed by, hopefully, drawing on the undoubtedly vast knowledge base in this forum. I doubt I will be providing any mind-blowing insight for anyone, but hopefully you guys won't mind too much indulging a lay person, with an inquisitive mind. To get to the crux of the issue as I have so far discussed, I am of the opinion that time is not a measurable force/entity/law of nature, but rather a system of measurement akin to the metric system. More pointedly, that time does not actually exist, but is rather the subjective rationalisation of mankind, based on the misinterpretation of naturally occuring phenomena. One point that seems to be made in support of the existence of time, as a real force of nature, is time dilation, and the experimental results that verify its validity. The issue I have with this is that time dilation is based on a self-contained set of assumptions that, upon investigation, appear to be fallacious. The basic assumptions appear to be: 1. That time exists 2. That a clock measures time Now the issue that I have is with the assumption that a clock measures the force that is known as time. The example I am most familiar with is the atomic clock, where the microwave emissions of changing electrons are noted as the measurement of the force of time. This however, as far as I can see is a non sequitor. To say that the microwave emissions of changing electrons is a measurement of the force known as time, does not follow logically, and is merely an arbitrary interpretation. I would greatly appreciate any feedback on this inquiry.