- #1

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Let us suppose that f

^{-1}(x) has the same equation as f(x).

Will the domain and range as defined for f(x) be the same as for the inverse ?

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- Thread starter elemis
- Start date

- #1

- 163

- 1

Let us suppose that f

Will the domain and range as defined for f(x) be the same as for the inverse ?

- #2

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- #3

- 163

- 1

No, you misunderstood the question I posed.

Lets us say that the range for f(x) is f(x) > 3 and its domain is x>0

Now lets say f

Will f

- #4

disregardthat

Science Advisor

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Will f^{-1}(x) have the same range and domain as f(x) ? That is, will the domain be x>0 and the range f^{-1}(x)>3 ?

Tinyboss understood you perfectly, and gave a counterexample.

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