- #1

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is it necessarily true that we have

[tex]\frac{\partial T}{\partial q}=0[/tex]?

[tex]\frac{\partial T}{\partial q}=0[/tex]?

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- Thread starter pardesi
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- #1

- 339

- 0

is it necessarily true that we have

[tex]\frac{\partial T}{\partial q}=0[/tex]?

[tex]\frac{\partial T}{\partial q}=0[/tex]?

- #2

- 70

- 0

For instance, if the generalized coordinate q describes the angular velocity of a body about some axis, and q varies while holding all other generalized coordinates constant, then the kinetic energy T of the system varies, and that derivative is non-0... right?

- #3

- 7,593

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T=[itex]\frac{1}{2}m (\dot{r}^{2} + (r\dot{\theta})^{2})[/itex]

- #4

- 339

- 0

exactly that was my point of contradiction to my profs claim

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