Dx/P = dy/Q = dz/R why we take lP+mQ+nR=0 and then solve?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

why we take lP+mQ+nR = 0 in solution of dx/P=dy/Q=dz/R i-e ldx+mdy+ndz/(lP+mQ+nR) .. when lP+mQ+nR = 0 the expression goes to infinity .. how then we take integral of ldx+mdy+ndz as lx+my+nz= C. kindly clear

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# Dx/P = dy/Q = dz/R

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