- #1
Werg22
- 1,431
- 1
We all know that to each action there is a responsive reaction. Let's take the case of a falling ball. Ignoring factors such as friction, elasticity and thermal energy, the ball is dropped from a certain distance perpendicularly above the ground with an inexistent initial velocity. At the instant the ball hits the ground with a certain a certain force, the ground applies an equal force on the ball. The ball is then reflected in the opposite direction. But to get from a direction to one that is opposite, the ball has to, at a certain point drop to a velocity of zero. My thoughts were, naturally, that the reaction force reaccelerates the ball until a certain velocity is reached (witch is equivalent to the final velocity of the falling motion). And here is my problem; if really this is the case, then the force needs a certain time to reaccelerate the ball. Since the force is equivalent to the one of gm, so the time needed would be the same as the time the ball was in the air… this is obviously wrong, but by what logic?