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Einstein or Einstein–Cartan?

  1. Dec 29, 2008 #1
    Could anyone explain:

    I dont understand why if #3 (Experimental effects are too small to be observed) there is a 'proof' #2? What is a 'flaw' if there are no observed effects?
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 29, 2008 #2


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    Gold Member

    I think #2 and #3 are independent of each other. In order to accomodate spin-orbit coupling a theory must have an asymmetric affine connection. This is not true of GR but is the case for Einstein-Cartan theory. That is a fact and does not depend on the fact that the effects of SO coupling are very small in weak field and small spin regimes.

    I think the article is saying that with our present data, it isn't possible to separate the two theories.
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