Eisentein theorem

1. Mar 15, 2007

catcherintherye

Then the proof goes on to consider coefficient of x viz a1=boc1 + b1co, and we know that a1=0modp and b1co=0modp so boc1=0modp.....

....2 questions why is b1co necessarily =0modp ? and secondly why does it follow that boc1=0modp? ....

.... i mean sure we know the sum b1co + boc1 =0modp but surely this doesn't imply b1co=0modp e.g 9=0mod3 but 9=5+4 and it is not true 5=0mod3

Last edited: Mar 15, 2007
2. Mar 15, 2007

catcherintherye

btw does anyone know how to get all the mathematical symbols and stuff cos i'm getting really bored of typin g everything out long hand!

3. Mar 15, 2007

Staff: Mentor

4. Mar 15, 2007

cristo

Staff Emeritus
I don't know what you're trying to prove here, but the way you've worded it seems to suggest that you know that a1=0modp and b1co=0modp. Comparing this to your first equation, then clearly boc1=0modp.

However, I don't think this is what you're asking. Perhaps you should state the assumptions of the theorem!

5. Mar 20, 2007

catcherintherye

[ tex ] a^x_n [ /tex ]