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Eisentein theorem

  1. Mar 15, 2007 #1
    Then the proof goes on to consider coefficient of x viz a1=boc1 + b1co, and we know that a1=0modp and b1co=0modp so boc1=0modp.....

    ....2 questions why is b1co necessarily =0modp ? and secondly why does it follow that boc1=0modp? ....

    .... i mean sure we know the sum b1co + boc1 =0modp but surely this doesn't imply b1co=0modp e.g 9=0mod3 but 9=5+4 and it is not true 5=0mod3
    Last edited: Mar 15, 2007
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 15, 2007 #2
    btw does anyone know how to get all the mathematical symbols and stuff cos i'm getting really bored of typin g everything out long hand!
  4. Mar 15, 2007 #3

    jim mcnamara

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  5. Mar 15, 2007 #4


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    I don't know what you're trying to prove here, but the way you've worded it seems to suggest that you know that a1=0modp and b1co=0modp. Comparing this to your first equation, then clearly boc1=0modp.

    However, I don't think this is what you're asking. Perhaps you should state the assumptions of the theorem!
  6. Mar 20, 2007 #5
    [ tex ] a^x_n [ /tex ]
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