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retupmoc

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When going over my notes on the lorentz electromagnetic force in my physics 3 electromagnetism class got a bit puzzled by one statement that seems just to be taken for granted. Could anyone help me and tell me why x1

If its just by using pythagorus wouldnt the above quantities (x,y and r) be to the second power. i just cant get my head around this and realise its probably something really straight forward. any help would be much appreciated.

**i**=**r1**-y1**j**on page 5 on http://www.physics.gla.ac.uk/~dland/ELMAG305/Elmag305txt1.pdf [Broken] where frame 1 is the stationary frame and 2 the frame moving with velocity v to the right of frame 1If its just by using pythagorus wouldnt the above quantities (x,y and r) be to the second power. i just cant get my head around this and realise its probably something really straight forward. any help would be much appreciated.

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