Hello, I have question regarding this. suppose , a rest object of mass m1is exerted a force of F for time t1 to give a final velocity vf1, and traveled distance is x1. So kinetic energy would be Ek = W = F * x= (m * V^2)/2. see the formula for kinetic energy is based on how much work is done on it to get the kinetic energy, and it is formulated as w = F *x = Ek= (m * V^2)/2. Now if the mass increases one can still achieve the same distance travaled by keeping the F same, but now time has to be increased, u have to force it longer than before. Ok if i this way it will be esier to understand: for m2>m1,f1= f2, x1=x2 W1= W2 but t2 > t1. MY QUESTION IS IF WE MEASURING THE EFFORT WHEN WE ARE MEASURING ENERGY, THEN IN THE CASE OF m2 WE ARE OBVIOUSLY MISSING SOME EFFORT, BECAUSE WE FORCED A BIGGER MASS LONGER TIME , AND W2 DOES NOT TAKE ANYACOUNT OF THAT, I MEAN HOW IT IS POSSIBLE THAT AFTER SMALLER MASS BEEN FORCED FOR SHORTER TIME GAIN THE SAME ENERGY AS THE BIGGER MASS WHICH WAS FORCED TO THE SAME BUT FOR LONGER TIME, even if the distance travelled is same in the both cases. But If we consider mv to be the measure of the efort then it is protionate to the time, So mv increases whenever the time increases, so isnt it very logical to use mv to measure the effort? Please could anyone clarify pls .thanx.