let be the double integral:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex]\int_0^{\infty}dx\frac{f(x)}{x^{a}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dyG(x+y)y^{-ib}=0 (1) [/tex]a and b real... then we should have that:

[tex]\int_0^{\infty}dx\frac{f(x)}{x^{a}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dyG(x+y)y^{+ib}=0 [/tex]

my question is ,let,s suppose that (2-a,b) makes also the integral (1) be zero..then my question is if necessarily 2-a=a and a=1 because we would have that:

[tex]\int_0^{\infty}dxf(x)(x^{-a}-x^{a-2}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dyG(x+y)y^{+ib}=0 [/tex] should be zero so -a=a-2---->a=1

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Equality of two integrals

Can you offer guidance or do you also need help?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**