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dgOnPhys

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I have been trying to remember if in classical EM it is equivalent to describe magnetization through bound electric currents

A. [itex]\vec{j_b} = \nabla \times \vec M[/itex]

[itex]\vec{k_b} = \vec M \times \vec{\hat{n}}[/itex]

OR bound magnetic charges

B. [itex]\rho_b = -\nabla \cdot \vec M[/itex]

[itex]\sigma_b = \vec M \cdot \vec{\hat{n}}[/itex]

The topic originated https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=447805", there someone already suggested this is not valid inside matter but I am still not seeing it. From what I recall once bound sources are introduced (in place of matter) one can replace magnetization and polarization in Maxwell equations and boundary conditions and solve, right? What am I missing?

A. [itex]\vec{j_b} = \nabla \times \vec M[/itex]

[itex]\vec{k_b} = \vec M \times \vec{\hat{n}}[/itex]

OR bound magnetic charges

B. [itex]\rho_b = -\nabla \cdot \vec M[/itex]

[itex]\sigma_b = \vec M \cdot \vec{\hat{n}}[/itex]

The topic originated https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=447805", there someone already suggested this is not valid inside matter but I am still not seeing it. From what I recall once bound sources are introduced (in place of matter) one can replace magnetization and polarization in Maxwell equations and boundary conditions and solve, right? What am I missing?

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