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Equivalent Impedence problem

  1. May 3, 2006 #1
    Given this problem and its solution:


    I think the given solution is wrong. The equivalent impedence is R + jwL || 1/jwC, right?

    When I work out jwL || 1/jwC, I get ((jwL) * (1/jwC))/ (jwL + 1/jwC) = jwL / (j(w^2)CL + 1).

    However the given solution has 1- j(w^2)CL instead of my 1 +.

    Ive worked this out every way I could think of, is the given solution correct, or am I correct?
  2. jcsd
  3. May 3, 2006 #2
    Nevermind, I feel dumb now.

    I completly missed that j^2=-1
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