Given this problem and its solution: I think the given solution is wrong. The equivalent impedence is R + jwL || 1/jwC, right? When I work out jwL || 1/jwC, I get ((jwL) * (1/jwC))/ (jwL + 1/jwC) = jwL / (j(w^2)CL + 1). However the given solution has 1- j(w^2)CL instead of my 1 +. Ive worked this out every way I could think of, is the given solution correct, or am I correct?