Equivalent Impedence problem

  • Thread starter ness9660
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  • #1
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Given this problem and its solution:

http://img230.imageshack.us/img230/9239/quest13lf.gif [Broken]


I think the given solution is wrong. The equivalent impedence is R + jwL || 1/jwC, right?

When I work out jwL || 1/jwC, I get ((jwL) * (1/jwC))/ (jwL + 1/jwC) = jwL / (j(w^2)CL + 1).


However the given solution has 1- j(w^2)CL instead of my 1 +.

Ive worked this out every way I could think of, is the given solution correct, or am I correct?
 
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Answers and Replies

  • #2
35
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Nevermind, I feel dumb now.

I completly missed that j^2=-1
 

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