This might be a really silly question, but suppose that you have two (possibly Frechet) manifolds M and N both endowed with a G-action. If M and N are homotopy equivalent, is it necessary that they will be G-equivariantly homotopy equivalent?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Edit: That is, should I expect them to have the same equivariant cohomology rings?

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Equivariant Homotopy

Loading...

Similar Threads - Equivariant Homotopy | Date |
---|---|

Smooth Homotopy, Regular Values (Milnor) | May 10, 2012 |

Smooth homotopy | Apr 11, 2012 |

Homotopy paths | Jan 8, 2012 |

An detail in proving the homotopy invariance of homology | Aug 15, 2011 |

Any right equivariant automorphisms that aren't group left actions? | Apr 1, 2007 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**