# Euler formula

1. Aug 26, 2015

For Euler formula :
e(iπ) + 1 =0
is it the same if we say e(-iπ)+1 = 0 or not ? (minus sign is included in the exponent)

2. Aug 26, 2015

### RUber

It isn't the same, but true nonetheless.

3. Aug 26, 2015

### mathman

It's a special case using $e^{2n\pi i}=1$ for all integers n.

4. Aug 27, 2015

### Ssnow

Another way as the special case of $e^{i\pi +k2\pi i}=-1$ for $k=0$, in general it is true for $k\in\mathbb{Z}$.