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Euler formula

  1. Aug 26, 2015 #1
    For Euler formula :
    e(iπ) + 1 =0
    is it the same if we say e(-iπ)+1 = 0 or not ? (minus sign is included in the exponent)
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 26, 2015 #2

    RUber

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    It isn't the same, but true nonetheless.
     
  4. Aug 26, 2015 #3

    mathman

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    It's a special case using [itex]e^{2n\pi i}=1[/itex] for all integers n.
     
  5. Aug 27, 2015 #4

    Ssnow

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    Another way as the special case of ## e^{i\pi +k2\pi i}=-1## for ##k=0##, in general it is true for ##k\in\mathbb{Z}##.
     
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