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Hi there ,

I am missing a crucial point on the proof of Euler Lagrange equation , here is my question :

[tex]\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}-\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{df}{dy^{'}}\right)=0[/tex] (Euler-Lagrange equation)

If the function "f" doesn't depend on x explicitly but implicitly and if y satisfies the Euler-Lagrange equation then ;

[tex]\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}=0[/tex]

Why is that so ? While ,supposedly , f is dependent to 3 variables : x,y,y' how van that statement be true ?

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# Euler Lagrange Equation

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