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## Main Question or Discussion Point

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I can't figure out why this is true. How can we prove it?

Can someone explain this, please?

Any help is appreciated!

**Let m and k be positive integers and φ(m) is the Euler's phi function. Then the number of integers n such that 1≤n≤mk and (n,m)=1 is kφ(m).**"I can't figure out why this is true. How can we prove it?

Can someone explain this, please?

Any help is appreciated!