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## Homework Statement

Consider a function f: D∈R, where D = {1/n for natural numbers n (1, 2, 3, 4, etc.)} and f(x) = 3x - 1 for all x in D. Explain why the limit of f(x) as x → 1 does not exist.

## Homework Equations

## The Attempt at a Solution

Uh I figured it would exist. We know a function does not have a limit at c if and only if there exists a sequence (x_n) where x_n ≠ c for all natural numbers n such that (x_n) converges to c but the sequence (f(x_n)) does not converge in the reals.

there will not exist such a sequence in D that converges to 1 because x_n cannot equal 1 for any n. so the limit must exist. i mean why wouldn't the limit exist?