Is it true that for any unital ring (not necessarily commutative), that we have a ring homomorphism for all a = (a_1, ....,a_n)[itex]\in R, from R[X_1,.....,X_n] → R given by sending a polynomial f to f(a)? I have only ever seen this for fields. I cannot think of any possible reason it would be false for general rings but I just wanted to make sure.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Evaluation Homomorphism

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