- #1
Monobrow
- 10
- 0
Is it true that for any unital ring (not necessarily commutative), that we have a ring homomorphism for all a = (a_1, ...,a_n)[itex]\in R, from R[X_1,...,X_n] → R given by sending a polynomial f to f(a)? I have only ever seen this for fields. I cannot think of any possible reason it would be false for general rings but I just wanted to make sure.