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ECmathstudent
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I just wrote an exam in Algebra II, and one of our true or false questions got me thinking. Does every field have a subfield which is isomorphic to the Q or Z mod p? I put it as true, for the wrong reasons, vaguely remembering a similar statement about integral domains and mixing it up. So, after the exam I was sure I was wrong.
But doesn't every field have the subfield {0,1}? Wouldn't this make the statement true, if somewhat vacuously?
But doesn't every field have the subfield {0,1}? Wouldn't this make the statement true, if somewhat vacuously?