- #1

- 224

- 0

Can anyone guide me to what this theorem is called or to its implications? Also, does it work in reverse? i.e. if it is true that d/dx(df/dy) = d/dy(df/dx) for some function f, then does f necessarily exist?

- Thread starter Physics_wiz
- Start date

- #1

- 224

- 0

Can anyone guide me to what this theorem is called or to its implications? Also, does it work in reverse? i.e. if it is true that d/dx(df/dy) = d/dy(df/dx) for some function f, then does f necessarily exist?

- #2

- 1,250

- 2

- #3

HallsofIvy

Science Advisor

Homework Helper

- 41,833

- 961

I remember before reading bits and pieces about how if we have a function of two variables, say f = f(x,y), then it must be true that d/dx(df/dy) = d/dy(df/dx), where the "d"'s are partials.

If f doesCan anyone guide me to what this theorem is called or to its implications? Also, does it work in reverse? i.e. if it is true that d/dx(df/dy) = d/dy(df/dx) for some function f, then does f necessarily exist?

- #4

- 224

- 0

- Last Post

- Replies
- 3

- Views
- 2K

- Replies
- 4

- Views
- 766

- Replies
- 4

- Views
- 575

- Replies
- 1

- Views
- 1K

- Last Post

- Replies
- 4

- Views
- 2K

- Last Post

- Replies
- 2

- Views
- 2K

- Replies
- 4

- Views
- 4K

- Replies
- 7

- Views
- 1K

- Replies
- 8

- Views
- 5K

- Replies
- 4

- Views
- 7K