- #1
center o bass
- 560
- 2
Hi I know it's easy to prove that if a vectorfield is the gradien of a potential, [tex] \vec F = \nabla V[/tex], then [tex]\nabla \times F = 0.[/tex] But how about the converse relation? Can I prove that if [tex]\nabla \times F = 0,[/tex] then there exist a salar potential such that [tex] \vec F = \nabla V?[/tex]
I get as far as proving the existence of a potential function
[tex]V(\vec r) = \int_{\vec r_0}^{\vec r} \vec F \cdot d\vec r,[/tex]
but how do I now establish that
[tex] F = \nabla V?[/tex]
What is the gradient of a line integral?
I get as far as proving the existence of a potential function
[tex]V(\vec r) = \int_{\vec r_0}^{\vec r} \vec F \cdot d\vec r,[/tex]
but how do I now establish that
[tex] F = \nabla V?[/tex]
What is the gradient of a line integral?