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I have the following question,

So far I have learned that the expectation value of momentum is equal the time derivative of the expectation value of position. If the potential only depends upon position and not on time. Then, if we use the time independent schrodinger equation the wavefuntion will be separable into a purely function of x and a function of t. Therefore, is it correct to assert that the expectation value of momentum will always be zero for this case, since the expectation value of position will be a constant?

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# Expectation Value of Momentum

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