- #1

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(1-sin(x))(sin(x))-(cos(x))(0-cos(x))

i know it simplifies to

1-sin(x)

but my book doesnt explain what exactly happens. could someone please shed some light and explain what exactly happens

- Thread starter Jbright1406
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- #1

- 20

- 0

(1-sin(x))(sin(x))-(cos(x))(0-cos(x))

i know it simplifies to

1-sin(x)

but my book doesnt explain what exactly happens. could someone please shed some light and explain what exactly happens

- #2

Defennder

Homework Helper

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I think you mistyped something. It doesn't simplify to that. Try for example x =pi/4.

- #3

atyy

Science Advisor

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I'm parsing his message as:I think you mistyped something. It doesn't simplify to that. Try for example x =pi/4.

(1-sinx)(sin

Does that make sense?

Edit: No, I misread!

- #4

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i see it simplifies to one.

the answer in the book shows the answer i previously gave over (1-sinx)^2

then the final answer being

1 over (1-sinx)

- #5

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then

(1-sinx)/(1-sinx)^2

then the final being

(1)/(1-sinx)

PS sorry for the double posting

- #6

Defennder

Homework Helper

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That minus sign, which was absent in your original post, makes the whole world of difference. To simplify, just expand the numerator out and apply a trigo identity.[(1-sinx)(-sinx)-cosx(0-cosx)]/(1-sinx)^2

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