Explanation x of f(x)=1

  • Thread starter eljose79
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  • #1
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yes ins the so called prime-number counting function that is

Sum over all the prime numbers less than a given number x of f(x)=1

in fact my calculation is easy got from the formula:

S(p)Exp(-sp)=L(Pi(x)) where L is the laplace transform and s(p) means the sum over all primes of the function exp(-sp)

i have got a formula to approach Pi(x) for all x.
 
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Answers and Replies

  • #2
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Actually, I have a problem related to Pi(x) that has been bothering me for some time. Given x is the product of two primes, and we know the value of Pi(X), how can we calculate the prime factors of x? Any help would be appreciated.
 

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