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Explanation x of f(x)=1

  1. May 23, 2003 #1
    yes ins the so called prime-number counting function that is

    Sum over all the prime numbers less than a given number x of f(x)=1

    in fact my calculation is easy got from the formula:

    S(p)Exp(-sp)=L(Pi(x)) where L is the laplace transform and s(p) means the sum over all primes of the function exp(-sp)

    i have got a formula to approach Pi(x) for all x.
     
    Last edited by a moderator: Feb 5, 2013
  2. jcsd
  3. May 23, 2003 #2
    Actually, I have a problem related to Pi(x) that has been bothering me for some time. Given x is the product of two primes, and we know the value of Pi(X), how can we calculate the prime factors of x? Any help would be appreciated.
     
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